Which statement best explains why the Portuguese established a trading post empire?

Which statement best explains why Portugal established a trading post empire? It had a large navy and was able to conquer nearby lands. It was a landlocked country and could not expand except by sea. It had only enough people and power to maintain trading posts rather than a large empire.

Why did Portugal develop a trading post empire instead of a traditional empire?

– Portugal created a “trading post empire”. Its goal was to control commerce, not territories or populations. – Operated by force of arms, not economic competition. Portuguese ships were more maneuverable, carried cannons.

Which statement best describes the Portuguese involvement in the Indian Ocean trade system?

Which statement best describes the Portuguese involvement in the Indian Ocean Trade System? The Portuguese used their advanced ships and weapons to begin conquering areas and forcing the people into unfair trade agreements.

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What impact did the products of mines described in the passage along with metals from other mines have on Spain and the rest of the world?

What impact did the products of mines described in the passage, along with metals extracted from other mines, have on Spain and the rest of the world? It resulted in inflation and a worldwide devaluation of silver.

Which European power created a trading post empire?

The Portuguese purchased territory along the coasts, on which the established trading posts that became centers for their trade.

Why was Portugal able to establish a trading post empire in the coastal areas of the Indian Ocean?

A political and religious motive was that the Europeans had to go to Venice for trading as it was the very large trading spot for eastern goods, so the Portuguese had to find a sea route to India that bypassed both Venetian and Muslim middlemen.

How did the Portuguese impact maritime trade?

In conclusion, the Portuguese transformed and influenced the maritime trade system in the Indian Ocean by force. They took over trading cities, destroyed Muslim trade ships, and imposed taxes to get their way. Now the Portuguese are dominant in the region and are very wealthy.

What effect did the Portuguese have on Indian Ocean trade?

Portugal’s purpose in the Indian Ocean was to ensure the monopoly of the spice trade. Taking advantage of the rivalries that pitted Hindus against Muslims, the Portuguese established several forts and trading posts between 1500 and 1510.

Why were the Portuguese able to dominate trade in the Indian Ocean?

11. Why were the Portuguese able to establish fortified bases in the Indian Ocean region so quickly and easily? their ships could outgun and outmaneuver competing naval forces, while their onboard cannons could devastate coastal fortifications. … List some ways the Portuguese tried to dominate Indian Ocean trade.

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What impact did the products of mines described in the passage?

What impact did the products of mines described in the passage, along with metals extracted from other mines, have on Spain and the rest of the world? It resulted in inflation and a worldwide devaluation of silver. French settlers were less likely to settle permanently in one place.

Which conclusion about the Portuguese is best supported by the passage?

Terms in this set (20) Which conclusion about the Portuguese is best supported by the passage above? They made great profits transportinggoods between Asian countries.

Why would the family portrayed in this painting have been rarer to find in a French colony than in other European colonies group of answer choices?

Why would the family portrayed in this painting have been rarer to find in a French colony than in any other European colonies? French settlers were less likely to settle permanently in one place.

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