Quick Answer: Where did the primary threat to Portuguese control of Southeast Asia come from?

Spanish ships carried silk and other luxury goods to Mexico in return for silver from the mines of Mexico. The primary threat to the Portuguese Empire in Southeast Asia, however, came with the arrival of the Dutch and the English, who were better financed than the Portuguese.

How did the Dutch pose a threat to Spanish English and Portuguese in the East Indian trade?

– In the early 1600s the Dutch took over the spice trade from the Portuguese and ran them out. They also pushed out the British and all other potential threats, leading to them having a monopoly on the spice trade.

How did the Portuguese establish a strong presence in South and Southeast Asia?

They build outposts and/or conquered trading posts to control spice trade, conquered the people, befriended the locals and made alliances, established colonies, overtook local governments with their wealth and power. 3. The Portuguese did not attempt to conquer inland territory.

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Why did Spain colonize the Philippines instead of creating a trading post empire like Portugal?

Why did Spain colonize the Philippines instead of creating a trading post empire like Portugal? the Spanish soon realized that they were behind in the race to gain access to the riches of the East.

What was the source of most of the Africans who were sold to Europeans along the western coast of Africa beginning in the sixteenth century quizlet?

What was the source of most of the Africans who were sold to Europeans along the western coast of Africa beginning in the sixteenth century? Because the slave trade was lucrative, it fueled raiding parties that would seek out men, women, and children to sell into the slave market.

Why did the Portuguese develop the Cartaz system?

The “cartazes” licensing system was created in 1502 to control and enforce the Portuguese trade monopoly over a wide area in the Indian Ocean, taking advantage of local commerce: the cartaz was issued by the Portuguese at a low cost, granting merchant ships protection against pirates and rival states, which then …

Why did the power of Portuguese decline in Southeast Asia?

Among the many reasons for the decline of Portuguese power in India include Portugal being too small a country to maintain the huge burden of a trading colony located in a far off land, their image as notorious sea pirates created enmity in the minds of the native rulers and last but not the least Portuguese rigid …

Why did the Portuguese not enjoy more success?

Why did the Portuguese not enjoy more success in their first voyage? When da Gama finally met the leader of Calicut, the conference went badly. The Portuguese had brought few goods of value to India, and the ruler expected gold in return for the spices that da Gama desired.

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Why did Portuguese empire fall?

By the end of the 20th century these colonial empires were history. The rise of Soviet influence in the working class, and the cost of the Portuguese Colonial War (1961–1974), led to the collapse of the Portuguese Second Republic (Estado Novo) in 1974.

What lands did Spain lay claim to and how did the Portuguese react?

All lands to the west of the line, identified as the Line of Demarcation, would be Spain’s. These lands comprised most of the Americas. All lands to the east of the line would go to Portugal. Portugal protested that the line gave excessively to Spain.

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